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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 07:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why do US military soldiers/officers have a chest full of medal ribbons when they probably haven't been in a combat situation? Are the medals for attendance, good behaviour, or long service perhaps?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Do you agree with Pete Hegseth's comment that Obama created a moral divide between military and civilian life?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What do you think about the NFA full auto band? Weapons built before 1986 can be transferred and registered? But we can't have an 87? But older weapons tend to be far more powerful. I think we should drop it. Input?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.